(Answer Key) UGC NET Exam December - 2015 (Paper -3)

(Answer Key) UGC NET Exam December - 2015 (Paper -3)

Exam Name: UGC NET

Year:  December 2015


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UGC NET Special TX: 

(Answer Key) UGC NET Exam December - 2015 (Paper -2)

(Answer Key) UGC NET Exam December - 2015 (Paper -2)

Exam Name: UGC NET

Year:  December 2015


Click here to download full answer key

Go back to main page


UGC NET Special TX: 

(Answer Key) UGC NET Exam December - 2015 (Paper -1)

(Answer Key) UGC NET Exam December - 2015 (Paper -1)

Exam Name: UGC NET

Year:  December 2015


Click here to download full answer key

Go back to main page


UGC NET Special TX: 

(Marks Statement) Joint CSIR UGC Test For J.R.F & Eligibility For Lectureship (NET) "held on 18th Dec, 2016"

(Marks Statement) Joint CSIR UGC Test For J.R.F & Eligibility For Lectureship (NET) "held on 18th Dec, 2016"


Year: December, 2016


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December-2004)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December-2004)


1. Discussion Method can be used when

(A) The topic is very difficult
(B) The topic is easy
(C) The topic is difficult
(D) All the above

2. Which of the following is a teaching aid?

(A) Working Model of Wind Mill
(B) Tape Recorder
(C) 16 mm Film Projector
(D) All the above

3. The main aim of teaching is:

(A) To develop only reasoning
(B) To develop only thinking
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) To give information

4. The quality of teaching is reflected

(A) By the attendance of students in the class
(B) By the pass percentage of students’
(C) By the quality of questions asked by students
(D) By the duration of silence maintained in the class

5. The present annual examination system:

(A) promotes rote learning
(B) does not promote good study habits
(C) does not encourage students to be regular in class
(D) All the above

6. A college wants to give training in use of, Statistical Package for Social Sciences (SPSS) to researchers. For this the college should organise:

(A) Conference
(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop
(D) Lecture

7. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a research?

(A) Research is systematic
(B) Research is not a process
(C) Research is problem oriented
(D) Research is not passive

8. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Discoveries are researches
(B) Researches lead to discovery
(C) Invention and Research are related
(D) None of the above

9. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) In research, objectives can be worded in question form
(B) In research, objectives can be worded in statement form
(C) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the Thesis
(D) All the above

10. Match List A with List B and choose the correct answer from the code given below:

List A

(a) Historical Method
(b) Survey Method
(c) Philosophical Method
(d) Experimental: Method

List II

(i) Past events
(ii) Vision
(iii) Present events
(iv) Exceptional cases
(v) Future action


      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (v)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (v)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Directions: Read the fallowing passage and answer the question numbers 11 to 15.

Each day at the Shantiniketan School starts with the Saraswati Vandana. When painting competitions are held in the school, images of Hindu gods and goddesses are most common. Sanskrit is a favourite ‘subject of many’ a student. Nothing new about it except that the 1,200 - odd students studying in the Hindu run school are Muslims In 1983, when Ranchodbhai Kiri started Shantiniketan in the all - Muslim Juhapura area of Ahmedabad in Gujurat only 20 percent of the students were Muslims. But when riots involving the Muslims of Juhapura and the Hindus of nearby Jivrajpark - Vejalpur affected the locality, Hindus started migrating: Today, all the students are Muslims and the school is an unparalled example of harmony. In the 2002, when a section of inflamed Muslims wanted the school closed, the parents of the students stood like a wall behind it.
Shantiniketan’s principal says, “We never thought of moving the school out of the area because of the love and affection of the local Muslims. Indeed they value the high standard of education which we have set.” Such is the reputation of the school that some of the local Muslim strongmen accused of involvement in communal riots are willing to protect the school during the riots.
The parents of Shantiniketan’s students believe that it’s the best school when it comes to the quality of the teaching. A large number of students have gone for both graduation and post graduation studies. Significantly, the only Muslim teacher in the 40 - member teaching staff, Husena Mansuri, teaches Sanskrit. Intact. she is so happy at the school that “he recently dcclined the principalship of another Muslim - run school.
Some of the students’ entries in a recent school painting competition. mere truly moving. One drew a pciture of Bharat Mala with a mosque and temple, while another portrayed a boy tying rakhi to his sister. Trully, Shantiniketan is a beacon of hope that, despite the provocations from both communities, Hindus and Muslims can live side-by-side with niutllal respect.

11. How the Shantiniketan school starts the day?

(A) National anthem
(B) Prayer
(C) Saraswati Vandana
(D) Puja

12. Write, the subject which is preferred by most of the students

(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Sanskrit
(D) Gujarati

13. Who protects the school during the riot times?

(A) Local Muslims
(B) Hindus
(C) Politicians
(D) Christians

14. Who is the teacher of Sanskrit?

(A) Ranchodbhai Kiri
(B) Husena Mansuri
(C) Manisha Vakil
(D) Husena Khatoon

15. What is the hope despite the communal riots?

(A) Hindus and Muslims cannot live side by side
(B) Hindus and Muslims can live side by side
(C) Only Hindus can live
(D) Only Muslims can live

16. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below

List I (Distinguished Ladies)

(a) Jhumpa Lahiri
(b) Barkha Dutt
(c) Aparna Sen
(d) Smita Patil

List II (Area of work)

(i) Journalist
(ii) Novel Writing
(iii) Film Actress
(iv) Film Director


       (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

17. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(A) Aajtaak - 24 hours news channel
(B) P.M. Stations - Radio
(C) National Geography channel - Television
(D) Vir Sanghvi - India Today

18. Which is the oldest soap opera telecasted in India?

(A) Kahani Ghar Ghar Ke
(B) Buniad
(C) Hurnlog
(D) Sans bhi Kabhi Bahu Thee

19. Which satellite channel uses the adline, “Knowing is everything”?

(A) BBC World
(B). Star
(C) Sony
(D) Zee

20. Which is the “First made in India” Kids channel of television ?

(A) Cartoon Network
(B) Walt Disney
(C) United Home Entertainment’s Hungama TV
(D) Nick Jr.

21. The letters in the first set have certain relationships. On the basis of the relationship which is the right choice for the second set?

BF : GK : : LP : ?

(A) JK
(B) QU
(C) VW
(D) RQ

22. If the BLOOD is coded as 24113 and BRUST as 20678, then code for ROBUST is :

(A) 620781
(B) 012678
(C) 678102
(D) 610732

23. A bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. If the total amount in the bag is Rs. 35, how many coins of each type are there?

(A) 15
(B) 18
(C) 20
(D) 25

25. If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8, and so on, what do the following numbers stand for:

22, 25, 8, 22 and 5 ?


26. Which of the following statements are always true?

(a) A wooden table is a table
(b) Now, it is raining or not raining
(c) The sun rises in the East every day
(d) A chicken comes out of a hen’s egg

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:


(A) (a) and (c)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) (b) and (c)


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December-2005)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December-2005)

1. Team teaching has the potential to develop:

(A) Competitive spirit
(B) Cooperation
(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
(D) Highlighting the gaps in. each other’s teaching

2. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system’?

(A) Students become serious.
(B) It improves .attendance in the classroom.
(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.
(D) In compels students to think.

3. Which of the following methods of teaching encourages the use of maximum senses?

(A) Problem-solving method
(B) Laboratory method
(C) Self-study, method
(D) Team teaching method

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Communicator should have fine senses
(B) Communicator should have tolerance power
(C) Communicator should; be soft spoken
(D) Communicator should have good personality

5. An effective teacher is one who can:

(A) control the class
(B) give more information in less time
(C) motivate students to learn
(D) correct the assignments carefully

6. One of the following is not a quality of researcher:

(A) Unison with that of which he is in search
(B) He must be of alert mind
(C) Keenness in enquiry
(D) His assertion to outstrip the evidence

7. A satisfactory statistical quantitative method should not possess one of the following qualities

(A) Appropriateness
(B) Measurability
(C) Comparability
(D) Flexibility

8. Books and records are the primary sources of data in:

(A) historical research
(B) participatory research
(C) clinical research
(D) laboratory research

9. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) objectives should be pin-pointed
(B) objectives can be written in statement or question form
(C) another word for problem is variable
(D) all the above .

10. The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences, social sciences and humanities are:

(A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor. topic
(B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience
(C) Archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking
(D) Topic, supervisor, good temperament, preconceived notions

Directions: Read the following passage’ and answer the questions 11 to 15:

Knowledge creation in many cases requires creativity and idea generation. This is especially important in generating alternative decision support solutions. Some people believe that an individual’s creative ability stems primarily from personality traits such as inventiveness, independence, individuality, enthusiasm, and flexibility. However, several studies have found that creativity is not so much a function of individual traits as was once believed, and that individual creativity can be learned and improved. This understanding has led innovative companies to recognise that the key to fostering creativity may be the development of an idea-nurturing work environment. Idea-generation methods and techniques, to be used by individuals or in groups, are consequently being developed; Manual methods for supporting idea generation, such as brainstorming in a group; can be very successful in certain situations. However, in other situations such an’ approach is either not economically feasible or not possible. For example, manual methods in group creativity sessions will not work or will not be effective when: (1) there is no time to conduct a proper idea-generation session; (2) there is a poor facilitator (or no facilitator at all); (3) it is too expensive to - conduct an idea-generation session; (4) the subject matter is too sensitive for a face-to-face session; or (5) there are not enough participants, the mix of participants is not optimal or there is no climate for idea generation. In such cases, cornputerised idea-generation methods have been tried, with frequent success.
Idea-generation software is designed to help stimulate a single user or a group to produce new ideas, options and choices. The user does all the work but the software encourages and pushes, something like a personal trainer. Although idea- generation software is still relatively new there are several packages on the market. Various approaches are used by idea-generating software to increase the flow of ideas to the user. Idea Fisher, for example, has an associate lexicon of the English language that cross-references- words and phrases. These associative links, based on analogies and metaphors, make it easy for the user to be fed words related to a given theme. Some software packages use questions to prompt the’ user towards new, unexplored patterns of thought. This helps users to break out of cyclical thinking patterns, conquer mental blocks, or deal with bouts of procrastination.

11. The author, in this passage has focussed on

(A) knowledge creation
(B) idea-generation
(C) creativity
(D) individual traits

12. Fostering creativity needs an environment of

(A) decision support systems
(B) idea-nurturing
(C) decision support solutions
(D) alternative individual factors

13. Manual methods for the support of idea-generation, in certain occasions;

(A) are alternatively effective
(B) can be less expensive
(C) do not need a facilitator
(D) require-a mix of optimal participants

14. Idea-generation software works as if it is a:

(A) stimulant
(B) knowledge package
(C) user-friendly trainer
(D) climate creator

15. Mental blocks, bouts of procrastination and cyclical thinking patterns can be won when:

(A) innovative companies employ electronic thinking methods
(B) idea-generation software prompts questions
(C) manual methods are removed
(D) individuals acquire a neutral attitude towards the software .

16. Level C of the effectiveness of communication is defined as

(A) channel noise
(B) semantic noise
(C) psychological moise
(D) source noise

17. Recording a television programme on a VCR is an example of:

(A) time-shifting
(B) content reference
(C) mechanical clarity
(D) media synchronisation

18. A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience :

(A) plentiful of information
(B) a good amount of statistics
(C) concise proof
(D) repetition of facts

19. The largest number of newspapers in India is published from the state of :

(A) Kerala
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Uttar Pradesh

20. Insert the missing number:

8 14 12 ? 18 54

(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 32

21. January 1, 1995 was Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996?

(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) None of these

22. The sum of a positive number and its reciprocal is twice the difference of the number and its reciprocal. The number is:

23. 23. In a certain code ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. How will PLEASE will be written in the same code :

(A) L P A E S E
(B) P L A E S- E
(C) L P A E E S
(D) P L AS E E

24. At what time between 5.30 and 6.00 will the hands of an clock be at right angles?

(A) min.past 5
(B) min.past 5
(C) 40 min.past 5
(D) 45 min.past 5

25. Statements:

I. All students are ambitious
II. All ambitious persons are hard working


(i) All students are hard-working
(ii) All hardly working people are not ambitious

Which of the following is correct?

(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) arid (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

26. Statement :

Most students are intelligent


(i) Some students are intelligent
(ii) All students are not intelligent

Which of the following is implied?

(A) Only (i) is implied
(B) Only (ii) is implied
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are implied
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied

27. Statement: Most labourers are poor

Conclusions :

(i) Some labourers are .poor
(ii) All labourers are not poor Which of the following is implied ?

(A) Only (i) is implied
(B) Only (ii) is implied
(C) Both (i) and (‘ii) are implied
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is implied

28. Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions of:


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June-2006)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June-2006)

1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill :

(A) Black Board writing
(B) Questioning
(C) Explaining
(D) All the above

2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

(A) Teachers can teach.
(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
(C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
(D) Teachers are born.

3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:

(A) Megasthanese
(B) Fahiyan
(C) Huan Tsang
(D) Kalhan

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.
(B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
(C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.
(D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.
(C) Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?

(I) Define noun.
(II) Define noun in your own words.

(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Both I and II
(D) Neither I not II

6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?

(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.
(II) to discover new things.
(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(IV) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with objectivity.

(A) IV, II and I
(B) I, II and III
(C) I and III
(D) II, III and IV

7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List- I (interviews)

(a) structured interviews
(b) Unstructured interviews
(c) Focussed interviews
(d) Clinical interviews

List e II (Meaning)

(ii) greater flexibility approach
(iii) attention on the questions to be answered
(iv) individual life experience
(v) Pre determined question
(vi) non-directive


(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) Ii) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)

8. What do you consider as the main- aim of inter disciplinary research ‘?

(A) To bring out holistic approach to research.
(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.
(C) To over simplify the problem of research.
(D) To create a new trend in research methodology.

9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to :

(A) improve data interpretation
(B) eliminate spurious relations
(C) confirm triangulation
(D) introduce new variables

10. The depth of any research can be judged by:

(A) title of the research.
(B) objectives of the research.
(C) total expenditure on the research.
(D) duration of the research

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice-President of India are vested in the Election Commission of Indi(A) It is an independent constitutional authority.
‘Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner hall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
In (C)W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission.

11. The text of the passage, reflects or raises certain questions :

(A) The authority of the’ commission can not be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.

12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. This is under Article No.:

(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 16l

13. Independence of the Commission means

(A) have a constitutional status
(B) have legislative powers
(C) have judicial powers
(D) have political powers

14. Fair and free election means :

(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups

15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :

(A) 125
(B) 352
(C) 226
(D) 324

16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as :

(A) content supply
(B) surveillance
(C) gratification
(D) correlation

17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as:

(A) cybernetics
(B) reserve communication
(C) selectivity study
(D) response analysis

18. ‘Networked media exist” in inter-connected

(A) social environments
(B) economic environments
(C) political environments
(D) technological environments

19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as :

(A) online communication
(B) integrated media
(C) digital combine
(D) convergence

20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as :

(A) man-machine speak
(B) binary chat
(C) digital talk
(D) interactivity

21. Insert the missing number:

22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November 1994?

(A) Thursday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Saturday

23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is ‘27. The largest of these numbers is

(A) 36
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 28

24. In a certain code, FHQK means, GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the same code?


26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below’?

Statement: Most teachers are hard working.


(I) Some teachers are hard working.
(II) Some teachers are not hard working.

(A) Only (I) is implied
(B) Only (II) is implied
(C) Both (l) and (II) are implied
(D) Neither (I) nor (Il) is implied

27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament?

(A) Any MLA
(B) Chief of Army Staff
(C) Solicitor General of India
(D) Mayor of Delhi

28. Which of the following conclusions ‘is logically valid based on statement given below’?


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December-2006)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December-2006)

1. Which of the following is not instructional material?

A. Over Head Projector
B. Audio Casset
C. Printed Material
D. Transparency

2. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Lecture Method can develop reasoning
B. Lecture Method can develop knowledge
C. Lecture Method is one way process
D. During Lecture Method ,students are passive

3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

A. To prepare students to pass examination
B. To develop the capacity to take decisions
C. To give new information
D. To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Reliability ensures validity
B. Validity ensures reliability
C. Reliability and validity are independent of each other
D. Reliability does not depend on objectivity

5. Which of the following indicates evaluation?

A. Ram got 45 marks out of 200
B. Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
C. Shyam got First Division in final examination
D. All the above

6. Research can be conducted by a person who:

A. has studied research methodology
B. holds a postgraduate degree.
C. possesses thinking and reasoning ability
D. is a hard worker

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
B. Researcher must possess analytical ability
C. Variability is the source of problem
D. All the above

8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?

A. Observation
B. Historical
C. Survey
D. Philosophical

9. Research can be classified as :

A. Basic, Applied and Action Research
B. Quantitative and Qualitative Research
C. Philosophical, Historical. Survey and Experimental Research
D. All the above

10. The first step of research is :

A. Selecting a problem
B. Searching a problem
C. Finding a problem
D. Identifying a problem

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15:

After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glarn-sham and disharn-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience when the lights go dim and the projector rolls: as a nation, who are we? As a people, where are we going’?

The Germans coined a word for it, Zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in 1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986, where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and the saviour. In Subhas Ghai’s Ktsna, set in 1947, the other is the English woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehta’s The Rising, the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard characterizations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti, but an honourable friend.
This is Manoj Kumar’s Desh Ki dharti with a difference: there is culture, riot contentious politics; balle bulle, not bombs no dooriyan (distance), only nazdeekiyan (closeness).

All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name: Veer Pratap Singh in Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.

11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce?

A. Bling + bling
B. Zeitgeist
C. Montaz
D. Dooriyan

12. Who made Lamhe in 1991?

A. Subhash Ghai
B. Yash Chopra
C. Aditya Chopra
D. Sakti Samanta

13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar?

A. Jewel in the Crown
B. Kisna
C. Zaara
D. Desh Ki dharti

14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra?

A. Deewar
B. Kabhi Kabhi
C. Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge
D. Veer Zaara

15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara?

A. Traditional Gujarati Clothes
B. Traditional Bengali Clothes
C. Traditional Punjabi Clothes
D. Traditional Madrasi Clothes

16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?

A. Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
B. Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
C. The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
D. Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.

17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?

A. Zee News
B. NDTV 24 x 7
D. India News

18. Consider the following statements in communication

(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.
(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development Corporation.
(iv) Dilip Kumar. Raj Kapoor and PreetiZinta have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. (i) and (iii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (iv) only .
D. (iii) only

19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

A. N. Ram: The Hindu
B. Barkha Dutt : Zee News
C. Pranay Roy: NDTV 24 x 7
D. Prabhu Chawla: Aaj Taak

20. “Because I you, deserve to know” is the punchline used by :

A. The Times of India
B. ‘The Hindu
C. Indian Express
D. Hindustan Times

21. In the sequence of -numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is :

A. 26
B. 24
C. 36
D. 32


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2007)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2007)

1. Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

A. simple
B. more knowledgeable
C. quicker
D. interesting

2. The teacher’s role at the higher educational level is to:

A. provide information to students
B. promote self-learning in students
C. encourage healthy competition among students
D. help students to solve their personal problems

3. Which one of the following teachers would you like the most

A. punctual
B. having research aptitude
C. loving and having high idealistic philosophy
D. who often amuses his students

4. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher :

A. during the practice-teaching
B. after the practice-teaching
C. before the practice-teaching
D. none of the above.

5. Which is the least important factor in teaching?

A. punishing the students
B. maintaining discipline in the class
C. lecturing in impressive way
D. drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board

6. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

A. t test
C. x2
D. factorial analysis

7. A research problem is feasible only when:

A. it has utility and relevance
B. it is researchable
C. it is new and adds ‘something to knowledge
D. all the above

8. Bibliography given in a research report:

A. shows vast knowledge of the researcher
B. helps those interested in further research
C. has no relevance to research
D. all the above

9. Fundamental research reflects the ability to :

A. Synthesize new ideals
B. Expound new principles
C. Evaluate the existing material concerning research
D. Study the existing literature regarding
various topics

10. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known as

A. Survey Research
B. ‘Ex-post Facto’ Research
C. Historical Research
D. Summative Research

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business firms pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue. They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at inflated prices and get concessions and privatized firms at low prices. If corruption is endemic, public officials both bureaucrats and elected officials - may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public benefits and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to promote ‘good governance’ must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns. Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess influence on policy. Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption cannot be confined to ‘functional’ areas. It will be a temptation whenever private benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but, over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.

11. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship. between private wealth and public power are likely to become :

A. Functional
B. Dysfunctional
C. Normal functioning
D. Good governance

12. One important symptom of bad governance is:

A. Corruption
B. High taxes
C. Complicated rules and regulations
D. High prices

13. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many opportunities for:’

A. Public benefits
B. Public profit
C. Private profit
D. Corporate gains

14. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the indicatives for:

A. Efficient government
B. Bad governance
C. Inefficient government
D. Corruption

15. The spiralling corruption can only be contained by promoting :

A. Private profit
B. Anti-corruption campaign
C. Good governance
D. Pay-offs and kick backs

16. Press Council of India’ is located at :

(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Delhi

17. Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as :

A. Photo cutting
B. Photo bleeding
C. Photo cropping
D. Photo adjustment

18. Feed-back of a message comes from :

A. Satellite
B. Media
C. Audience
D. Communicator

19. Collection of-information in advance before designing communication strategy is known as :

A. Feed-back
B. Feed-forward
C. Research study
D. Opinion poll

20. The aspect ratio of TV screen is :

A 4 : 3
B. 4 : 2
C. 3 : 5
D. 2 : 3

21. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6, ––

A. 5
B. 6
C. 8
D. 4

22. If in a certain language PUNCTUAL is coded as 16598623, how would ACTUPULN be coded?

A. 8 3 4 5 3 6
B. 2 9 8 6 1 6 3 5
C. 8 3 4 5 3 0
D. 8 3 4 5 3 9

23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data does not explain one of the following:

A. Is ‘X’ related to ‘y’?
B. How is ‘X’ related to ‘Y’?
C. How does ‘X’ affect the dependent, variable ‘Y’ at different levels of another independent -variable ‘K’ or ‘M’ ‘?
D. How is ‘X’ by ‘K’ related to ‘M’ ?

24. January 12, 1980, was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979 :

A. Saturday’
B. Friday
C. Sunday
D. Thursday

25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if the month ends on Wednesday ?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. None of the above’

26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet both can be false. Choose the right pair :

(i) All men are mortal
(ii) Some men are mortal
(iii) No man is’ mortal
(iv) Some men are not mortal

A. (i) and (ii)
B. (iii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2007)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2007)

1. Verbal guidance is least effective is the learning of:

(A) Aptitudes
(B) Skills
(C) Attitudes
(D) Relationship

2. Which is the most important aspect of the teacher’s rle in learning?

(A) The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance
(B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to be avoided
(C) The provision of encouragement and moral support
(D) Te provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help

3. The most appropriate purpose of learning is:

(A) personal adjustment
(B) modification of behaviour
(C) social and political awareness
(D) preparing oneself for employment

4. The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be :

(A) encouraged to find answer independently
(B) advised to meet the teacher after the class
(C) encouraged to continue questioning
(D) advised not to disturb during the lecture

5. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through :

(A) discussion method
(B) lecture method
(C) audio-visual aids
(D) text book method

6. Generalised conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as :

(A) Data analysis and interpretation
(B) Parameter inference
(C) Statistical inference
(D) AII of the above

7. The experimental study is based on

(A) The manipulation of variables
(B) Conceptual parameters
(C) Replication of research
(D) Survey of literature

8. The main characteristic of scientific research is:

(A) empirical
(B) theoretical
(C) experimental
(D) all of the above

9. Authenticity of a research finding is its:

(A) Originality
(B) Validity
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above

10. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

(A) Area Sampling Technique
(B) Purposive Sampling Technique
(C) Systematic Sampling Technique
(D) None of the above

Directions: Read the following passage’ and answer the questions 11 to 15:

Gandhi’s overall social and environmental philosophy is based on what human beings need rather than what they want. His earl:( introduction to the teachings of Jains, Theosophists, Christian sermons: Ruskin and Tolstoy, and most significantly the Bhagavad-Gita were to have profound impact on the development of Gandhi’s holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their eco logical interrelation. His deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an ambience for an alternative social thinking that was at once far-sighted, local’ and immediate. For Gandhi was acutely aware that the demands generated by the need to feed and sustain human life, compounded by the growing industrialization of India, far outstripped the finite resources of nature. This might nowadays appear naive or commonplace, but, such pronouncements were as rare as they were heretical a century ago. Gandhi was also concerned about the destruction, under colonial and modernist designs, of the existing infrastructures which had more potential for keeping a community flourishing within ecologically sensitive traditional patterns of subsistence, especially in the rural areas, than did the incoming Western alternatives based on nature-blind technology and the enslavement of ‘human spirit and energies.
Perhaps the moral principle for which Gandhi is best known is that of active non-violence, derived from the traditional moral restraint of not injuring another being. The most refined expression of this value is in the great epic of the Mahabharata, (c. 1OO BCE to 200 CE), where moral development proceeds through placing constraints on the liberties, desires and acquisitiveness endemic to human life. One’s action is judged in terms of consequences and the impact it is likely to have on another. Jainas had generalized this principle to include all sentient creatures and biocommunities alike. Advanced Jaina monks and nuns will sweep their path to avoid harming insects and even bacteria. Non-injury is a non-negotiable universal prescription.

11. Which one of the following have a profound impact on the development of Gandhi’s holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological interrelations?

(A) Jain teachings
(B) Christian sermons
(C) Bhagavad Gita
(D) Ruskin and Tolstoy

12. Gandhi’s overall social and environmental philosophy is based on human beings’

(A) need
(B) desire
(C) wealth
(D) welfare

13. Gandhiji’s deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural population created an ambience for an alternative:

(A) rural policy
(B) social thinking
(C) urban policy
(D) economic thinking

14. Colonial policy and modernisation led to’ the destruction of:

(A) major industrial infrastructure
(B) irrigation infrastructure
(C) urban infrastructure
(D) rural infrastructure

15. Gandhi’s active non-violence is derived from:

(A) Moral restraint of not injuring another being
(B) Having liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
(C) Freedom of action
(D) Nature-blind technology and enslavement of human spirit and energies

16. DTH service was started in the year:

(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2004
(D) 2006

17. National Press day’ is celebrated on

(A) 16th November
(B) 19th November
(C) 21st November
(D) 30th November

18. The total number of members in the Press Council of India are

(A) 28
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 20

19. The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article:

(A) 19 (2) (a)
(B) 19 (16)
(C) 19 (2)
(D) 19 (1) (a)

20. Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:

(A) Enriching curriculum based .instruction
(B) Replacing teacher in the long run
(C) Everybody having access to a radio set
(D) Other means of instruction getting outdated

21. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark which will complete the following series :

5, 4, 9, 17, 35, ? = 139

(A) 149
(B) 79
(C) 49
(D) 69

Directions: Questions 22 to 24 are based Oil the following diagram ill which there are three interlocking circles I, S and P, where circle I stands for Indians, circle S for Scientists and circle P for Politicians. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f.

22. The region which represents Non-Indian Scientists who are Politicians

(A) f.
(B) d
(C) a
(D) c

23. The region which represents Indians who are neither Scientists nor Politicians’

(A) g
(B) c
(C) f
(D) a

24. The region which represents Politicians who are Indians as well as Scientists :

(A) b
(B) c
(C) a
(D) d

25. Which number is missing in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26. 37, 50, ?

(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2008)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2008)

1. The teacher has been glorified by the phrase “Friend, philosopher and guide” because:

(A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
(B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C) He is the great reformer of the society
(D) He is a great patriot

2. The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of :

(A) inter personal relationship
(B) lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C) verbal ability
(D) strict handling of the .students

3. A teacher can establish rapport with his students by :

(A) becoming a figure of authority
(B) impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C) playing the role of a guide
(D) becoming a friend to the students

4. Education is a powerful instrument of:

(A) Social transformation
(B) Personal transformation
(C) Cultural transformation
(D) All the above

5. A teacher’s major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the student is affected through:

(A) Constant fulfilment of the students’ needs
(B) Strict control of class-room activities
(C) Sensitivity to students’ needs, goals and purposes
(D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards

6. Research problem is selected from the stand point of:

(A) Researcher’s interest
(B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance
(D) Availability of relevant literature

7. Which one is’ called non-probability sampling?

(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling

8. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in :

(A) Survey method
(B) Historical studies
(C) Experimental studies
(D) Normative studies

9. Field-work based research is classified as:

(A) Empirical
(B) Historical
(C) Experimental
(D) Biographical.

10. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006?

(A) Cluster sampling
(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that are left out of the group and that differentia must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14 is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal protection of laws. In the very nature of things the society being composed of unequal’s a welfare State will have to strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition’ so that the social and economic inequality in the society may be bridged. This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically appraising the social and economic inequality and keeping in view the guidelines on which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour. Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle correlated to the object sought to be achieved.

The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law should be equal and should be equally administered and that the likes should be treated alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different shall be as though they are the same. It of course means denial of any special privilege by reason of birth creed or the like, The legislation as well as the executive government while dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of· human relations must of necessity have the power of making special laws to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon which such laws are to operate.

11. Right to equality one of the fundamental rights is enunciated in the constitution under Part III. Article:

(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 15

12. The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits:

(A) class legislation
(B) equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C) absolute equality
(D) special privilege by reason of birth

13. The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by :

(A) executive and legislative action’
(B) universal suffrage·
(C) identical treatment
(D) none of the above

14. The doctrine of classification is evolved to :

(A) Help weaker sections of the society
(B) Provide absolute equality
(C) Provide identical’ treatment
(D) None of the above

15. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations the government :

(A) must have the power of making special laws
(B) must not have any power to make special laws
(C) must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) none of the above

16. Communication with oneself is known as:

(A) Group communication
(B) Grapevine communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Intrapersonal communication

17. Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?


18. All, India Radio before 1936 was known as:

(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian State Broadcasting Service
(D) All India Broadcasting Service

19. The biggest news agency of India is :

(D) Sarnachur Bharati

20. Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:

(A) 1995
(B) 1997
(C) 1999
(D) 2001

21. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as :

(A) Sample parameter
(B) Inference
(C) Statistics
(D) None of these

22. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that :

(A) There is alinear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
(D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.

23. The F-test:

(A) is essentially a two tailed test.
(B) is essentially a one tailed test.
(C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D) can never be a one tailed test.

24. What will be the next letter in the following series: DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, _. __


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2008)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2008)

1. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher’s success depends on:

A. His renunciation of personal gain and service to others
B. His professional training and creativity
C. His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to ‘God
D. His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students

2. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most:

A. A teacher of high idealistic attitude
B. A loving teacher
C. A teacher who is disciplined
D. A teacher who often amuses his students

3. A teacher’s most important challenge is:

A. To make students do their home work
B. To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
C. To maintain discipline in the class room
D. To prepare the question paper

4. Value-education stands for:

A. making a student healthy
B. making a student to get a job
C. inculcation of virtues
D. all-round development of personality

5. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you would:

A. pull up the student then and there
B. talk to the student after the class
C. ask the student to leave the class
D. ignore the student

6. The research is always-

A. verifying the old knowledge
B. exploring new knowledge.
C. filling the gap between knowledge
D. all of these

7. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and more clear ideas about the problem is:

A. Applied research
B. Action research
C. Experimental research
D. None of these

8. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the ‘most suitable sampling method is:

A. Cluster Sampling
B. Stratified Sampling
C. Convenient Sampling
D. Lottery Method

9. The process not needed in experimental research is:

A. Observation
B. Manipulation and replication
C. Controlling
D. Reference collection

10. A research problem is not feasible only when:

A. it is researchable
B. it is new and adds something to knowledge
C. it consists of ,independent and dependent variables
D. it has utility and relevance·

Directions: Read tile following passage carefully and answer the questions 11-15.

Radically changing monsoon patterns reduction in the winter rice harvest and a quantum increase in respiratory diseases all part of the environmental doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South Asia. According to a United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three-kilometer deep blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome, cocktail of ash, acids, aerosols and other particles has enveloped in this region. For India, already struggling to cope with a drought, the implication of this are devastating and further crop failure will amount to a life and death question for many Indians. The increase in premature deaths will have adverse social and economic consequences and a rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health system. And there is no one to blame-nut ourselves. Both official and corporate India has always been allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most mechanical two wheelers roll of the assembly line without proper pollution control system. Little effort is made for R&D on simple technologies, which could make a vital difference to people’s lives and the environment.

However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean lip its act, skeptics might question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on climate change is just two weeks away and the stage is set for the usual battle between tile developing world and the West particularly the Unites States of America. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol which would mean a change in American consumption level. U.N. environment report will likely and a place in the U.S. arsenal as it plants all accusing finger towards controls like India and China. Yet the U.S.A. can hardly deny its own dubious role in the matter of erasing trading quotas.

Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing countries, who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch up with the West, the USA should take a look at the environmental profigacy which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil exploration to relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush’s policies are not exactly beneficial, not even to America’s interests. We realize that we are all in this together and that pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise there will only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.

11. Both official and corporate India is allergic to:

A. Failure of Monsoon
B. Poverty and Inequality
C. Slowdown in Industrial Production
D. Mention of Clean Technology

12. If the rate of premature death increases it will:

A. Exert added burden on the crumbling economy
B. Have adverse social and economic consequences
C. Make positive effect on our effort to control population
D. Have less job aspirants in the society

13. According to the passage, the two wheeler industry is not adequately concerned about:

A. Passenger safely on the roads
B. Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner
C. Pollution control system in the vehicle
D. Rising cost of the two wheelers

14. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just’ before the Kyoto meet?

A. United Nations is working hand-in-glove with U.S.A.
B. Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.A.
C. Drawing attention of the world towards devastating effects of environment degradation.
D. U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the forthcoming meet

15. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in South Asia ‘?

A. Social and economic inequality
B. Crumbling health care system
C. Inadequate pollution control system
D. Radically changing monsoon pattern

16. Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of:

A. Local audience
B. Education
C. Entertainment
D. News

17. Orcut is a part of :

A. Intra personal Communication
B. Mass Communication
C. Group Communication
D. Interpersonal Communication


19. Which is not correct in latest communication award?

A. Salman Rushdie- Booker’s Prize - July 20, 2008
B. Dilip Sanghavi - Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008
C. Tapan Sinha - Dada Saheb Falke Award. July 21, 2008
D. Gautam Ghosh- Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008

20. Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against:

A. Unauthorized attacks
B. Virus attacks
C. Data-driven attacks
D. Fire-attacks

21. Insert the missing number in the following:

22. In a certain’ code, GAMESMAN is  written as AGMEMSAN. How would DISCLOSE be written in that code ?


23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set:

AST : BRU : : NQV : ?


24. On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

A. 2, 9, 16, 23, 30
B. 3, 10, 17, 24
C. 4, 11, 18, 25
D. 1, 8, 15, 22, 29

25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence:

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

A. 130
B. 142
C. 153
D. 165


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2009)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2009)

1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is

(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National University (IGNOU)

2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery

(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4

3. Who has signed as MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India?’

(A) NAAC and UGC
(C) UGC and NCTE

4. The primary duty of the teacher is to

(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the students

5. Micro teaching is more effective

(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always

6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?

(A) Idealist philosophy
(B) Compassion
(C) Discipline
(D) Entertaining

7. A null hypothesis is

(A) when there is no difference between’ the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables

8. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called

(A) Philosophical research
(B) Historical research
(C) Mythological research
(D) Content analysis

9. Action research is

(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research
(D) Simulative research

10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is

(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis

11. Manipulation is always a part of

(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research

12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship· between creativity and intelligence ?

(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3

Directions: Read the [allowing passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18:

The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 - the months which Perderel Moon while editing Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.(A) prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on the. dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhui Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25 years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20. November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy ... this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ Ajournalist ((B) Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and Muslim ... A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim. Some of these men’ are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian  Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.

13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?

(A) Wavell’s Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.(A) Trials
(D) Red Fort Prisoners

14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises

(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives

15. I.N.A. stands for

(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) International Association
(D) Indian National Army

16. ‘There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy ... this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal barriers.’ Who sympathises to whom and against whom?

(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled

17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the

(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both

18. The sympathy of Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore indicates

(a) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(b) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers
(c) Simply to participate in the reception party
(d) None of the above

19. The Country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in the world is

(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States
(C) Japan
(D) China

20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

(A) Singns, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colurs, signs, codes, symbos
(D) Codes, colours, symbos, signs

21. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?

(A) Mideum is the message
(B) The world is an electronic concoon
(C) Information is power
(D) Telepathy is technological

22. Communication becomes circular when

(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the chnnel is clear

23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008 was

(A) Orkut
(B) Facebook
(D) Twitter

24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to use the projection technology.
Reasons (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents.

(A) Both A and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explantion
(B) Both A and (R) are true, but (R) is no the correct explanation
(C) A is true, but (R) is false
(D) A is false, but (R) is true

25. January I, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996 ?

(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Saturday

26. When an error of 1 % is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4

27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be

(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 76
(D) None of these

28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be answered in

(A) 26 ways
(B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways
(D) 1024 ways

29. What will be the ‘next term in the following? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?



(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2010)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2010)

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?

(A) Punctuality and sincerity
(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with

(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B. Ed. level?

(A) 1 + 7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10
(D) 1 + 5

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is

(A) Digestive upsets
(B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue
(D) Worry

5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.
(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.

6. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.

The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for- a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.

How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach ‘a word symbol to them.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more .knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat. there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are’ not real.

The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection .of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.

Concepts determine what the observer perceives yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In anyone field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on

(A) thought process
(B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions
(D) professional opinion

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind

(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images
(C) Expression .through language
(D) To gain knowledge

9. Concept means

(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above

10. The relation of Percept to Concept is

(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Reflective
(D) Absolute

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as

(A) The Globe
(B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body
(D) A Planet

12. Percept means

(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum
(D) An abstract image

13. Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socio-economic objective

14. Research is

(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
(D) None of the above

15. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability
(B) Useability
(C) Objectivity
(D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?

(A) Searching-sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem
(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness? This will be an example of

(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
(D) None of the above

18. Normal Probability Curve should be

(A) Positively’ skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed
(D) Zero skewed

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is

(A) audience attitude
(B) audience knowledge
(C) audience education
(D) audience income

20. Post-modernism is associated with

(A) newspapers
(B) magazines
(C) radio
(D) television

21. Didactic communication is

(A) intra-personal
(B) inter-personal
(C) organisational
(D) relational

22. In communication, the language is

(A) the non-verbal code
(B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code
(D) the iconic code

23. Identify the correct sequence of the following:

(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel
(D) Source. message, channel, receiver

24. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

25. When an error of 1 % is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be

(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) 2

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was

(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit?

(A) Water
(B) Tree
(C) World
(D) Earth

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E ?

(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother-in-law

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?


30. Find the next number ill the following series:
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?

(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69

31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument?

(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image,
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rarna is great because he is Rama

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because

(A) he is religious
(B) he is educated
(C) he is rich
(D) he is rational

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions’ (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?

I. Some religious people are morally good,
II. Some religious people are rational.

(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.

(A) Only (a) follows
(B) Only (b) follows
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows

34. Certainty is

(A) an objective fact
(B) emotionally satisfying
(C) logical
(D) ontological

Directions: Questions from 35 to 36 are based Oil the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I, Sand P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g:

35. The region which representsn on – Indian scientists who are politicians.

(A) f
(B) d
(C) a
(D) c


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2010)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2010)

1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?

(A) Socio-economic Status
(B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude
(D) Professional Altitude


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2011)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2011)

1. Photo bleeding means

(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(C) Photo colour adjustment

2. While designing communication strategy feed- forward studies are conducted by

(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
(D) Media

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?

(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) Bengali
(D) Tamil

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is

(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 2 : 4

5. Communication with oneself is known as

(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for

(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, _

(A) 76
(B) 74
(C) 75
(D) 50

8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV .....

(A) X
(B) Y
(C) Z
(D) A

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and 469' means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code: then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code?

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 4

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’. ‘house’. ‘book’, and ‘student’:

(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Common names

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.

Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.

Choose the correct answer from below:

(A) Both (A) and (R, are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, arid (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12. The relation ‘is a sister of is

(A) non-symmetrical
(B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat ‘eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:

1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.


(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

14. Determine the nature of the following definition:

‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs. 10,000.

(a) persuasive
(b) précising
(c) lexical
(d) simulative

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home so he must have gone to town.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) Represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may

(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion. without entailing it

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.

1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid
2. A sound argument may be invalid,
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.


(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by

(A) 60%
(B) 40 %
(C) 196%
(D) 96 %

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways” in which hall can be illuminated is

(A) 102
(B) 1023
(C) 210
(D) 10!

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?

(A) 100
(B) 110
(C) 120
(D) 180

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is

(A) at least 30
(B) at most 20
(C) exactly 25
(D) exactly 5

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector?

(A) 1.5 mmt
(B) 2.5 mmt
(C) 1.75 mmt
(D) 0.75 mmt

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?

(A) 3.25 mmt
(B) 1.5 mmt
(C) 2.5 mmt
(D) 4 mmt

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?

(A) Windows Vista
(B) Android
(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all?

(A) (1111)2
(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10
(D) (1111)16

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?

(A) Oracle
(B) Compiler
(C) Mat lab
(D) Assembler

28. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program
(B) high level program
(C) web page
(D) web server


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2011)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2011)

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and. prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as

(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium

4. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:

All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birth lists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent sub disciplines are shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.

Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than. a producer of ‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the labor intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.

It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of anyone is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.

Answer the following questions:

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own
(B) political actions
(C) historical trends
(D) his enquiries

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions
(B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness
(D) habitual interpretation

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from

(A) a body of techniques
(B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians
(D) cosmological beliefs

8. What is philistinism?

(A) Reinforcement of prejudice
(B) Fabrication. of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes
(D) Belief that’ power and its exercise matter

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of

(A) literary criticism
(B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy
(D) intellectual history

10. The claim that ideas of anyone is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is

(A) to have a licensed political class
(B) political action
(C) a philosophy of literature
(D) the mirror-image of philistinism

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as

(A) channelisation
(B) mediation
(C) encoding
(D) decoding

13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment
(B) political environment
(C) social environment
(D) multi-cultural environment

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s

(A) personality
(C) expectation
(B) social status
(D) coding ability

15. When communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become

(A) myths
(B) reasons
(C) experiences
(D) convictions

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s

(A) competence
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity
(D) ethnicity

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR: DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have similar relationship:

(A) fraction : decimal
(B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom
(D) dividend : divisor

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130
(B) 142
(C) 153
(D) 165

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as


20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set :

K/T : 11/20 : : J/R : ?

(A) 10/8
(B) 10/18
(C) 11/19
(D) 10/19

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?

17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane
(B) Moped
(C) Motor
(D) Tonga

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is

(A) 1: 3
(B) 1: 4
(C) 1: 5
(D) 1 : 6

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3?

5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 3


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2012)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2012)

1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words:

(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used, a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as:

(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as:

(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is:

(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald

5. The Pioneer of the silent feature film in India was:

(A) K.A. Abbas
(B) Satyajit Roy
(C) B. R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of:

(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Power equation

7. The missing number in the series:

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is :

(A) 240
(B) 220
(C) 280
(D) 210

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out. of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is:

(A) 80
(B) 100
(C) 90
(D) 110

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is:

(A) 4
(B) 15/2
(C) 15/4
(D) 6

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by:


11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are:

(A) 30, 20
(B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12
(D) 40, 10

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (x), C means divided by (¸) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is:

(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14

13. Consider the Assertion-I and Assertion-II and select the right code given below: Assertion-I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves can not go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.

Assertion-II : The difference of skin-colour ‘of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result ofbody’s reaction to the sun and its rays.


(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?

(A) All men are honest
(B) Some men are honest
(C) No men are honest
(D) All of the above

15. A stipulative definition is:

(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false

16. Choose the apropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.

Examiner - Examinee, Pleader - Client, Preceptor - ?

(A) Customer
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?

I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.


(A) I & II (B) II & III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV

18. Choose the right code :

A deductive arguement claims that :

I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.


(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C) II and III (D) All of the above

Direction (Qs. 19 to 24): On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions.

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than 5 per cent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?

(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All of the above

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?

(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10
(D) 2010-11

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant In terms of share of expenditures?

(A) North-eastern areas
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting
(D) Social welfare and nutrition

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?

(A) Information & broadcasting
(B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment
(D) Social welfare & nutrition

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11 ?

(A) Education, sports & youth affairs
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Overall social services

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?

(A) Labour and employment
(B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Education, sports & youth affairs

25. ALU stands for:

(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

6. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called:

(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board

27. Computer Virus is a:

(A) Hardware
(B) Bacteria
(C) Software
(D) None of these

28. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) (17)10 = (17)16
(B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2
(D) (17)10 = (10001)2

29. The file extension of MS- Word document in Office 2007 is --------

(A) .pdf
(B) .doc
(C) .docx
(D) .txt

30. ........ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to’ your computer.


31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to:

(A) Lead
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium
(D) Zinc

33. Biomagnification means increase in the:

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to:

(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is:

(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies:


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2012)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (June 2012)

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication:

(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at:

(A) Lucknow
(B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai
(D) Mumbai

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year:

(A) 1926
(B) 1936
(C) 1946
(D) 1956

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?


5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for:

(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for:

(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, __

(A) 60
(B) 64
(C) 72
(D) 70

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP .... ....

(A) N
(B) M
(C) O
(D) L

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’?

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5

10. The basis of the following classification is: ‘first President of India’, ‘author of Godan’, books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’

(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself the relation ‘is larger than’ is:

(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive

12. Assertion (A): There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.

Reason (R): Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.

Choose the correct answer from below:

(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct? Choose from the code given below:

1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal’; is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.


(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3

14. Determine the nature of the following definition:

“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.

(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Theoretical

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day he must be eating in the night.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to:

(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
(C) represent and assess the; t.uth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to:

(A) certainty
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture
(D) surety

18. Which of the following statements are false? Choose from the code given below:

1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.


(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 2

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of (D) Who is between A and F?

(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?

(A) 20%
(B) 25%
(C) 30%
(D) 33.33%

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that

(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled?

(A) 11 AM
(B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM
(D) 1:30 PM

The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below:

23. What is the contribution of wind, and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation?

(A) 6.79 GW
(B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW
(D) 29.1 GW

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation?

(A) 29.1 GW
(B) 26.19 GW
(C) 67.9 GW
(D) 97 GW

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the:

(A) Phone lines
(C) Internet
(D) Server

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for:

(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change

27. Which of the following is not a programming language?

(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to:

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10

29. Internet explorer is a type of

(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which:

(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive e-mail
(D) One does not need any telephone lines

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant:

(A) Sulphur di-oxide
(B) Ozone
(D) Nitrous oxide

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?

(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(D) Fertilizers

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?

(A) Clean air
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water
(D) Salt


(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2013)

(Paper) UGC NET Solved Paper (December 2013)

1. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

2. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis

3. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research

4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience

5. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse

6. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations

7. In communication, myths have power, but are

(A) uncultural
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise
(D) unpreferred

8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Sarnachar Bharati

9. Organisational communication can also be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.

10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called

(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation

11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi.Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?

(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna

12. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false

13. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument

14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage?

(A) Deductive
(B) Astrological
(C) Analogical
(D) Mathematical

15. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.


(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)


(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest.

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 16 to 19 based on this table.

16. Find out the region that contributed around 20 per cent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.

(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia

17. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?

(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia

18. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of .share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.

(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia

19. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FT As in India in 2008.

(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia

20. The post-industrial society is designated as

(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society

21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for

(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns

22. Internal communication within institutions is done through


23. Virtual reality provides

(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films

24. The first virtual university of India came up in

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu

25. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below :

(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth


(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

26. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America



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